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2024 USA IMO Team Selection Test, 3
Tags: bye , number theory , combinatorics
Let $n>k \geq 1$ be integers and let $p$ be a prime dividing $\tbinom{n}{k}$. Prove that the $k$-element subsets of $\{1,\ldots,n\}$ can be split into $p$ classes of equal size, such that any two subsets with the same sum of elements belong to the same class. [i]Ankan Bhattacharya[/i]