In the coordinate plane, a closed lattice loop of length $2n$ is a sequence of lattice points $P_0, P_1, P_2, \ldots, \ldots, P_{2n}$ such that $P_0$ and $P_{2n}$ are both the origin and $P_{i}P_{i+1}=1$ for each $i.$ A closed lattice loop of length $2026$ is chosen uniformly at random from all such loops. Let $k$ be the maximum integer such that the line $\ell$ with equation $x+y=k$ passes through at least one point of the loop. Compute the expected number of indices $i$ such that $0 \le i \le 2025$ and $P_i$ lies on $\ell.$ (A lattice point is a point with integer coordinates.)

Ten coins are placed in a circle, showing “heads” (the tails are down). Two moves are allowed: (a) turn over four consecutively placed coins; (b) turn over four coins placed as $XX OXX$ ($X$ is one of the coins to be turned over, $O$ is not touched). Is it possible to have all ten coins showing “tails” after a finite sequence of such moves? (A Tolpygo)

Find the number of sequences with $2022$ natural numbers $n_1, n_2, n_3, \ldots, n_{2022}$, such that in every sequence: $\bullet$ $n_{i+1}\geq n_i$ $\bullet$ There is at least one number $i$, such that $n_i=2022$ $\bullet$ For every $(i, j)$ $n_1+n_2+\ldots+n_{2022}-n_i-n_j$ is divisible to both $n_i$ and $n_j$

Let $n$ be a natural number. A sequence $x_1,x_2, \cdots ,x_{n^2}$ of $n^2$ numbers is called $n-\textit{good}$ if each $x_i$ is an element of the set $\{1,2,\cdots ,n\}$ and the ordered pairs $\left(x_i,x_{i+1}\right)$ are all different for $i=1,2,3,\cdots ,n^2$ (here we consider the subscripts modulo $n^2$). Two $n-$good sequences $x_1,x_2,\cdots ,x_{n^2}$ and $y_1,y_2,\cdots ,y_{n^2}$ are called $\textit{similar}$ if there exists an integer $k$ such that $y_i=x_{i+k}$ for all $i=1,2,\cdots,n^2$ (again taking subscripts modulo $n^2$). Suppose that there exists a non-trivial permutation (i.e., a permutation which is different from the identity permutation) $\sigma$ of $\{1,2,\cdots ,n\}$ and an $n-$ good sequence $x_1,x_2,\cdots,x_{n^2}$ which is similar to $\sigma\left(x_1\right),\sigma\left(x_2\right),\cdots ,\sigma\left(x_{n^2}\right)$. Show that $n\equiv 2\pmod{4}$.

Given an integer $a_1$($a_1 \neq -1$), find a real number sequence $\{ a_n \}$($a_i \neq 0, i=1,2,\cdots,5$) such that $x_1,x_2,\cdots,x_5$ and $y_1,y_2,\cdots,y_5$ satisfy $b_{i1}x_1+b_{i2}x_2+\cdots +b_{i5}x_5=2y_i$, $i=1,2,3,4,5$, then $x_1y_1+x_2y_2+\cdots+x_5y_5=0$, where $b_{ij}=\prod_{1 \leq k \leq i} (1+ja_k)$.

In the eight-term sequence $A,B,C,D,E,F,G,H$, the value of $C$ is 5 and the sum of any three consecutive terms is 30. What is $A+H$? $\textbf{(A)}\,17 \qquad\textbf{(B)}\,18 \qquad\textbf{(C)}\,25 \qquad\textbf{(D)}\,26 \qquad\textbf{(E)}\,43$

Given a positive integer $n$, consider a triangular array with entries $a_{ij}$ where $i$ ranges from $1$ to $n$ and $j$ ranges from $1$ to $n-i+1$. The entries of the array are all either $0$ or $1$, and, for all $i > 1$ and any associated $j$ , $a_{ij}$ is $0$ if $a_{i-1,j} = a_{i-1,j+1}$, and $a_{ij}$ is $1$ otherwise. Let $S$ denote the set of binary sequences of length $n$, and define a map $f \colon S \to S$ via $f \colon (a_{11}, a_{12},\cdots ,a_{1n}) \to (a_{n1}, a_{n-1,2}, \cdots , a_{1n})$. Determine the number of fixed points of $f$.

Let $S = \{1, 2, 3, . . . , 64\}.$ Compute the number of ways to partition $S$ into $16$ arithmetic sequences such that each arithmetic sequence has length $4$ and common difference $1, 4,$ or $16.$

Two positive valued sequences $\{ a_{n}\}$ and $\{ b_{n}\}$ satisfy: (a): $a_{0}=1 \geq a_{1}$, $a_{n}(b_{n+1}+b_{n-1})=a_{n-1}b_{n-1}+a_{n+1}b_{n+1}$, $n \geq 1$. (b): $\sum_{i=1}^{n}b_{i}\leq n^{\frac{3}{2}}$, $n \geq 1$. Find the general term of $\{ a_{n}\}$.

A positive integer $n$ is said to be a [i]perfect power[/i] if $n=a^b$ for some integers $a,b$ with $b>1$. $(\text{a})$ Find $2004$ perfect powers in arithmetic progression. $(\text{b})$ Prove that perfect powers cannot form an infinite arithmetic progression.

Suppose $ \,G\,$ is a connected graph with $ \,k\,$ edges. Prove that it is possible to label the edges $ 1,2,\ldots ,k\,$ in such a way that at each vertex which belongs to two or more edges, the greatest common divisor of the integers labeling those edges is equal to 1. [b]Note: Graph-Definition[/b]. A [b]graph[/b] consists of a set of points, called vertices, together with a set of edges joining certain pairs of distinct vertices. Each pair of vertices $ \,u,v\,$ belongs to at most one edge. The graph $ G$ is connected if for each pair of distinct vertices $ \,x,y\,$ there is some sequence of vertices $ \,x \equal{} v_{0},v_{1},v_{2},\cdots ,v_{m} \equal{} y\,$ such that each pair $ \,v_{i},v_{i \plus{} 1}\;(0\leq i < m)\,$ is joined by an edge of $ \,G$.

Two men set out at the same time to walk towards each other from $ M$ and $ N$, $ 72$ miles apart. The first man walks at the rate of $ 4$ mph. The second man walks $ 2$ miles the first hour, $ 2\frac {1}{2}$ miles the second hour, $ 3$ miles the third hour, and so on in arithmetic progression. Then the men will meet: $ \textbf{(A)}\ \text{in 7 hours} \qquad \textbf{(B)}\ \text{in }{8\frac {1}{4}}\text{ hours}\qquad \textbf{(C)}\ \text{nearer }{M}\text{ than }{N}\qquad \\ \textbf{(D)}\ \text{nearer }{N}\text{ than }{M}\qquad \textbf{(E)}\ \text{midway between }{M}\text{ and }{N}$

Two sequences of positive reals, $ \left(x_n\right)$ and $ \left(y_n\right)$, satisfy the relations $ x_{n \plus{} 2} \equal{} x_n \plus{} x_{n \plus{} 1}^2$ and $ y_{n \plus{} 2} \equal{} y_n^2 \plus{} y_{n \plus{} 1}$ for all natural numbers $ n$. Prove that, if the numbers $ x_1$, $ x_2$, $ y_1$, $ y_2$ are all greater than $ 1$, then there exists a natural number $ k$ such that $ x_k > y_k$.

Let $(a_m)$ be a sequence satisfying $a_n \geq 0$, $n=0,1,2,\ldots$ Suppose there exists $A >0$, $a_m - a_{m+1}$ $\geq A a_m ^2$ for all $m \geq 0$. Prove that there exists $B>0$ such that \begin{align*} a_n \le \frac{B}{n} \qquad \qquad \text{for }1 \le n \end{align*}

Let $f:[0,1]\to\mathbb R$ be a continuous function. Define a sequence of functions $f_n:[0,1]\to\mathbb R$ in the following way: $$f_0(x)=f(x),\qquad f_{n+1}(x)=\int^x_0f_n(t)\text dt,\qquad n=0,1,2,\ldots.$$Prove that if $f_n(1)=0$ for all $n$, then $f(x)\equiv0$.